- Topic
So God would return and be baptized into the SDA church? Doesn't make sense. Watch this video:
Elievalkyrie wrote:
If verse 2,3,4 are talking about Jesus Christ and since He did come and I think we can safely say that verse 4 did not happen LITERALLY, then we can also say that verse 5 stating "all mankind will see it" is not to be taken literally also. Though I would be wrong if it is proven that "Every valley shall be raised up, every mountain and hill made low; the rough ground shall become level, the rugged places a plain." did in fact happened. Did it?
So why don't you tell us what it all means to you then, So your saying what? this isn't about christ? or verse 4 didn't happen yet? or is about the end of age? what are u talking about?
I am not sure that Is 40:5 refers to Jesus. I believe it means the events of verse 5 will be a manifestation of God's glory. If the word 'glory' refered to Jesus, the pronoun should have been 'him' not 'it' i suppose.
fromtheotherside wrote:
2 Peter 1:17
"For he received honor and glory from God the Father when the voice came to him from the Majestic Glory, saying, "this is my son, who I love, with him I am well pleased."
Jesus received the Glory from God.
Very good FTOS. The Father, separate from the Son Jesus, publicly testified to who Jesus was. Two things can be gleaned from this.
1. The Father has publicly witnessed to the identity of Jesus. Not so for anyone else who claims to be the second coming.
2. The Father and Son are simultaneously existing. They are not two names of two different ages.
fromtheotherside wrote:
So why don't you tell us what it all means to you then, So your saying what? this isn't about christ? or verse 4 didn't happen yet? or is about the end of age? what are u talking about?
Actually, this is my first encounter of Isaiah 40. I didn't even know that it was suppose to refer to Jesus until Simon told it to us. I am not a "prophecy interpreter" expert so I can only research on it so that I could at least have a little bit of inkling on what it meants and so far this is what I saw, http://www.crivoice.org/isa40.html, if you can use that as a valid reference, Isaiah 40:1-5 doesn't refer to Jesus.
Elievalkyrie wrote:
If verse 2,3,4 are talking about Jesus Christ and since He did come and I think we can safely say that verse 4 did not happen LITERALLY, then we can also say that verse 5 stating "all mankind will see it" is not to be taken literally also.
Exactly the point
Elievalkyrie wrote:
fromtheotherside wrote:
So why don't you tell us what it all means to you then, So your saying what? this isn't about christ? or verse 4 didn't happen yet? or is about the end of age? what are u talking about?
Actually, this is my first encounter of Isaiah 40. I didn't even know that it was suppose to refer to Jesus until Simon told it to us. I am not a "prophecy interpreter" expert so I can only research on it so that I could at least have a little bit of inkling on what it meants and so far this is what I saw, http://www.crivoice.org/isa40.html, if you can use that as a valid reference, Isaiah 40:1-5 doesn't refer to Jesus.
John trumps commentaries
Simon wrote:
Elievalkyrie wrote:
If verse 2,3,4 are talking about Jesus Christ and since He did come and I think we can safely say that verse 4 did not happen LITERALLY, then we can also say that verse 5 stating "all mankind will see it" is not to be taken literally also.
Exactly the point
What the WMSCOG does is takes part of a passage and say it's literal while another part of that same passage isn't literal. I'm a firm believer that either all of it is literal or none of it is literal. A common manner of speaking about a large quantity is to say "all". Shimon lies all the time! That can't be true. Also, people refer to a small quantity as if it doesn't exist. Shimon never tells the truth! Still can't be true. Perhaps verse 5 is an exaggeration? Just poking fun simon. =)
Would need to be a major exaggeration
Simon wrote:
Elievalkyrie wrote:
If verse 2,3,4 are talking about Jesus Christ and since He did come and I think we can safely say that verse 4 did not happen LITERALLY, then we can also say that verse 5 stating "all mankind will see it" is not to be taken literally also.
Exactly the point
That is the point in Isaiah but that doesn't mean that you also can't take Revelation 1 literally. Revelation is different from Isaiah afterall and the sentence construction and given situation is also different. Since if Jesus does come a second time around and it specifically says TO JUDGE, if you would look at it, there would be no reason for Him to wait for how many days or weeks or months just to judge people since we have already been given years to live and that way we live our life is the basis of the "judgement". It's like taking an exam, the "TEST" coud take up to 3 days for the students but it just takes one day, even less, to tell the student whether he passed or failed.
except revelation makes the least sense of any book other than Daniel to take literally
That is if you take it generally or collectively. Revelations 1:7 doesn't make sense to you?
geographically it is impossible
It is also impossible to turn water into wine at an instant and feed thousands of people with only 7 loaves and fish.
for different reasons
in fact Jesus says people will be asleep at the time of his coming how will they see him? Every eye is already proven not literally true by that fact alone
Simon wrote:
in fact Jesus says people will be asleep at the time of his coming how will they see him? Every eye is already proven not literally true by that fact alone
Simon could the asleep part mean spiritually?
Hmmm.. I think it cannot mean spiritually Kim. I don't even know how a person can "sleep" spiritually and what it means if that happens.
Anyway, we must always look at context, can you give me the bible verse for that Simon? About the sleeping when Jesus comes verse.
My bad it says in bed but at night the implication would be sleeping
Luke 17:30 “It will be just like this on the day the Son of Man is revealed. 31 On that day no one who is on the roof of his house, with his goods inside, should go down to get them. Likewise, no one in the field should go back for anything. 32 Remember Lot’s wife! 33 Whoever tries to keep his life will lose it, and whoever loses his life will preserve it. 34 I tell you, on that night two people will be in one bed; one will be taken and the other left. 35 Two women will be grinding grain together; one will be taken and the other left.
But it is very obvious here that you should not take it literally. If you read verse 34-35, you can see that the verse is just pointing out two situations where one is taken, let's assume that is the one that will be saved, and the other one will be left out. Saying that the bible stated that we will all be sleeping (literally) when Jesus comes that would contradict verse 35 unless the women grinding grain are also sleeping.
Eli, KF’s question can be viewed as valid though. God is Spirit. Either one is His or isn’t. So making it a spiritually dead or alive as far as the universal true God is concerned.
actually based upon the shape of the earth it’s pretty obvious it is literal
- You must be logged in to reply to this topic.