I just had a thought about these verses because I’m beginning to have much clarity since being freed from the WMSCOG. They use these verses to justify you will not be “saved” if you don’t keep Passover. It says unless you eat the flesh of the “Son of Man” and drink “his” blood you have no life in you. Well the WMSCOG teaches that Zhang is the reality of the Passover but reading these verses how can that be? She is not the Son of Man nor is she a he. They will try to refute my thought by saying she and Ash are one but according to this verse she clearly can to be the reality of Passover.
It would have been better had they said Ash was the reality of the Passover because it would have been more believable in the long run. So Jesus said the living Father sent him…Ash nor Zhang have made this statement/claim. So then can either of them truly be the reality of the Passover?
]]>The reason I say the real question is " Did He bring back the Passover?" is because the Passover is the true sign to recognize God in Spirit and God in the Flesh. All through out the Old testament and the New Testament. So if someone restored the Passover, correctly, according to the Bible's regulation, before Christ Ahnsahnghong, then they would be the christ.
I will make one thing very clear. Herbert Armstrong established the World Wide Church of God in the Early 20th century. That church claims they keep the Passover. If their Passover is correct, then Herbert Armstrong was the Christ. However, there are alot of inconsistencies w/prophecy from that church. First of all, they believe in sunset theory. According to the Sunset Set Doctrine, the Passover cant be kept because, the appointed time of the Passover is 1st month 14th day at twilight (when the sun goes down Deut 16:5)so since they believe that the day begins at sunset, to them, when the sun goes down is no longer 1st month 14th day at twilight, it becomes 1st month 15th day.
2nd thing is Herbert Armstrong didn't come from a country that is EAST of Patmos Island. According to Revelation 1:9, Apostle John was on Patmos Island when he wrote revelation. And when he saw Christ coming w/the Seal of God, he saw him coming from the East.(Revelation 7:1-3) So he saw Christ coming from a country that is east of Patmos Island. So the fact that Herbert Armstrong didnt come from the east, but from America, which is west, shows he is not the christ. And if he isnt the christ, that means the Passover he taught was wrong. It is the same with all these churches that claim they are the true church. If Jehovahs Witnesses are the true church then Charles Russell is the Christ. Follow him. If SDA is the true church, then Ellen G. White is the christ. Follow her.. etc.
Nobody can prove that Christ Ahnsahnghong didn't do what the Bible teaches "ONLY GOD CAN DO" there for he is the Christ.
I only ask one thing. Please come w/Biblical or tangable proof. And stick to the topic. You guys are very angry, its not even comical, it's sad. Are you trying to pick and point at WMSCOG or are you trying to prove Christ Ahnsahnghong isnt the 2nd coming Christ? This will end all discussion. someone PLEASE prove that Christ Ahnsahnghong didn't restore THE PASSOVER, CORRECTLY, ACCORDING TO THE BIBLE'S REGULATION. If you prove that, then you prove WMSCOG is a false church following a false Christ. End of story.
]]>
I am starting this thread to discuss the issue of the issue of the Passover and about when and how it was abolished by the catholic church. I request wmscog members and former members to weigh in.
I am not clear about what the passover is as celebrated by the wmscog. What aspect of it was abolished in the 4th century.
]]>12 All who sin apart from the law will also perish apart from the law, and all who sin under the law will be judged by the law. 13 For it is not those who hear the law who are righteous in God’s sight, but it is those who obey the law who will be declared righteous. 14 (Indeed, when Gentiles, who do not have the law, do by nature things required by the law, they are a law for themselves, even though they do not have the law. 15 They show that the requirements of the law are written on their hearts, their consciences also bearing witness, and their thoughts sometimes accusing them and at other times even defending them.)16 This will take place on the day when God judges people’s secrets through Jesus Christ, as my gospel declares.
What stood out here to me was that according to these verses, the Gentiles who did not practice the law (that means that they did not observe the Sabbath, Passover, and other Jewish feasts) were said to "do by nature things required by the law…even though they do not have the law". How do the Gentiles observe the law by nature? How do the Gentiles show that the requirements of the law are written on their hearts if they do not spend all Saturday in the church or observe the other feasts at 5am and 730pm the way that the wmscog does?
Simple…they don't. It is impossible to observe the law or feasts the way that the wmscog does, and not even know the law like the Gentiles do in the verses above. I'm not sure if I'm communicating this clearly enough, so here's the bottom line as I see it. Observance of the Mosaic law is not required for salvation. I believe that we are under Jesus' moral law. Anyone else have any thoughts on this?
]]>Renita says:
]]>In response to your arguement:
In, 2 Sam, Job, & Ps, it says it thundered. However, in Rev, it says it sounded like thunder. All the verses you described "proving" when God speaks it thunders are different from the verses in Rev. To thunder & to sound like thunder is different. If I were to say that lightening hit earth with a bright flash. Then say that someone flashed a light in my face like lightening, I am not saying that lightening flashed in my face. But comparing the experience of seeing lightening to having a light shown in my face. As I understand it, when God spoke, it thundered according to 2 Sam, Job, & Ps. When other’s spoke, it sounded like thunder but was not thunder itself according to Rev. So, from a nuetral standpoint, not defending or offending the WMSCOG, I don’t see your point. Rev 10 must be God speaking because it wasn’t like thunder but thunder itself.
In Ex 34:27, God said, "Write down these words, for in accordance with these words I have made a cov’t with you & with Israel." As it was taught to me & wasn’t fully explained in the article, the cov’t (the 10 Commandments) were made in accordance with "these words." But what were the words God spoke? They were the Feast of God. He describes them in verses 18 & 22. They are the 3 times God’s people appear before Him (Ex 34:23, Dt 16:16)
I have read, for the 1st time, Dt 5:1-33. As I understand it, Moses began speaking about the 1st time they received the 10 Commandments. Dt 5:5, Moses explained that because they were afraid, they asked Moses to speak to God for them or they would die (Dt 5:24-27, Ex 20:18-19). So, my questions are: In Dt 5, is Moses just recalling what happened the 1st time he went up the mountain? If not, where is the Scripture to confirm? When were the Feast given to the Isrealites for the 1st time? I’m asking because if the Feasts were given when Moses got the 10 Commandments the 1st time, then the 2nd set would also have the Feast written on them according to Dt 10:4. These are serious questions I have. I am not defending the WMSCOG but shedding more light on what was said during my studies, how I understand them, & how I understand what you’re saying.
]]>